Private Pilot Practice Test: Free FAA Questions and Answers

1. Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2014. The next inspection will be due no later than

   A. September 30, 2015. B. September 1, 2016. C. September 30, 2016.
   Show answer

   Answer: C. Under 14 CFR 91.413 a transponder must have been tested and inspected within the preceding 24 calendar months. Calendar months run to the end of the month, so an inspection done on September 1, 2014 is good through September 30, 2016.

   Reference: 14 CFR 91.413(a) · ACS PA.I.B.K1b

2. With respect to the certification of airmen, which are categories of aircraft?

   A. Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon. B. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air. C. Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.
   Show answer

   Answer: B. For airman certification, 14 CFR 1.1 gives airplane, rotorcraft, glider and lighter-than-air as examples of aircraft categories, and 14 CFR 61.5(b)(1) lists the category ratings. Helicopter, gyroplane, airship and balloon are classes within categories, and single-engine or multiengine land and sea are airplane classes.

   Reference: 14 CFR 1.1 (Category); 14 CFR 61.5(b) · ACS PA.I.A.K1

3. A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to

   A. taxi at a faster speed. B. taxi only on taxiways and not cross runways. C. return to the starting point on the airport.
   Show answer

   Answer: C. In the 14 CFR 91.125 light signal table, a flashing white light to an aircraft on the surface means return to the starting point on the airport. Flashing white has no meaning for an aircraft in flight.

   Reference: 14 CFR 91.125; AIM 4-3-13 · ACS PA.III.A.K3

4. During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for day VFR flight is

   A. 1 mile. B. 3 miles. C. 5 miles.
   Show answer

   Answer: A. Outside controlled airspace means Class G. In Class G more than 1,200 feet AGL but below 10,000 feet MSL, the day VFR minimum is 1 statute mile flight visibility with 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above and 2,000 feet horizontal from clouds.

   Reference: 14 CFR 91.155(a) · ACS PA.I.E.K1

5. Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs at all towered airports

   A. regardless of weather conditions. B. only when weather conditions are less than VFR. C. within Class D airspace only when weather conditions are less than VFR.
   Show answer

   Answer: A. Unless ATC authorizes otherwise, you must maintain two-way radio communication with the tower to operate to, from, through or on any airport with an operating control tower, whatever the weather. The only relief is a radio failure in VFR conditions, when you may land if you keep visual contact with the tower and receive a clearance to land.

   Reference: 14 CFR 91.126(d), 91.127(c) and 91.129(c) · ACS PA.III.A.K2

6. During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is

   A. 500 feet. B. 1,000 feet. C. 1,500 feet.
   Show answer

   Answer: A. In Class G airspace more than 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL, the night VFR minimums are 3 statute miles visibility and 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above and 2,000 feet horizontal from clouds.

   Reference: 14 CFR 91.155(a) · ACS PA.I.E.K1

7. Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?

   A. Class C. B. Class E. C. Class G.
   Show answer

   Answer: A. Before entering Class C airspace you must establish two-way radio communication with the ATC facility providing air traffic services and maintain it while inside. Class E and Class G have no such requirement except when operating at an airport with an operating control tower.

   Reference: 14 CFR 91.130(c)(1); 14 CFR 91.126(d) and 91.127(c) · ACS PA.III.A.K2

8. Pre-takeoff briefing of passengers about the use of seat belts for a flight is the responsibility of

   A. all passengers. B. the pilot in command. C. the right seat pilot.
   Show answer

   Answer: B. 14 CFR 91.107(a) makes the pilot in command responsible for ensuring each person on board is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten the safety belt and shoulder harness, and is notified to fasten it for taxi, takeoff and landing.

   Reference: 14 CFR 91.107(a)(1) and (a)(2) · ACS PA.II.B.K1

9. A 100-hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?

   A. 3312.5 hours. B. 3395.5 hours. C. 3402.5 hours.
   Show answer

   Answer: C. The 100-hour limit may be exceeded by up to 10 hours only to reach a place where the inspection can be done, and that excess time counts toward the next interval. The next inspection is therefore due at 3302.5 + 100 = 3402.5 hours, not 100 hours after the late inspection.

   Reference: 14 CFR 91.409(b) · ACS PA.I.B.K1b

10. When speaking to a flight service weather briefer, you should state

    A. the pilot in command's full name and address. B. a summary of your qualifications. C. whether the flight is VFR or IFR.
    Show answer

    Answer: C. When you request a preflight briefing, the AIM says to identify yourself as a pilot and state the type of flight planned (VFR or IFR), along with the aircraft number or pilot's name, aircraft type, departure airport, route, destination, altitudes, and estimated time of departure and time en route. Your address and qualifications are not on that list.

    Reference: AIM 5-1-1 · ACS PA.I.C.K1

11. Why is frost considered hazardous to flight?

    A. Frost changes the basic aerodynamic shape of the airfoils, thereby increasing lift. B. Frost slows the airflow over the airfoils, thereby increasing control effectiveness. C. Frost spoils the smooth flow of air over the wings, thereby decreasing lifting capability.
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Frost disrupts the smooth flow of air over the wing, which can drastically reduce lift and increase drag, enough to prevent a safe takeoff. An airplane must be cleaned of all frost before flight.

    Reference: PHAK FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapter 12 · ACS PA.I.C.K3k

12. The mature stage of a thunderstorm begins with

    A. formation of the anvil top. B. the start of precipitation. C. continuous downdrafts.
    Show answer

    Answer: B. A thunderstorm cell enters the mature stage when precipitation begins to fall and reaches the surface, dragging air down into a downdraft beside the updraft. The mature stage is the most violent part of the storm's life cycle.

    Reference: Aviation Weather Handbook FAA-H-8083-28B, Chapter 22; PHAK Chapter 12 · ACS PA.I.C.K3h

13. What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?

    A. Obtain a clearance from the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA. B. Operate only on the airways that transverse the MOA. C. Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.
    Show answer

    Answer: C. VFR flight through a Military Operations Area needs no clearance, but the AIM says pilots operating under VFR should exercise extreme caution while military activity is being conducted. Contact the controlling agency for traffic advisories before entering an active MOA.

    Reference: AIM 3-4-5 · ACS PA.I.E.K3

14. Unless otherwise authorized, if flying a transponder equipped aircraft, a pilot should squawk which VFR code?

    A. 1200 B. 7600 C. 7700
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Unless ATC instructs otherwise, set the transponder to code 1200 for VFR flight regardless of altitude. Code 7600 signals a loss of two-way radio communication and 7700 signals an emergency.

    Reference: AIM 4-1-20; AIM 6-4-2 · ACS PA.III.A.K4

15. What is one purpose of wing flaps?

    A. To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed. B. To relieve the pilot of maintaining continuous pressure on the controls. C. To decrease wing area to vary the lift.
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Extending flaps increases lift and drag, which permits lower approach and landing speeds and a steeper descent angle without an increase in airspeed. Relieving control pressure is the job of trim, and flaps do not decrease wing area.

    Reference: Airplane Flying Handbook FAA-H-8083-3C, Chapter 9 · ACS PA.I.G.K1b

16. With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be

    A. more susceptible to icing. B. equally susceptible to icing. C. less susceptible to icing.
    Show answer

    Answer: A. The PHAK states that a fuel injection system is less susceptible to icing than a carburetor system, so float-type carburetors are the more susceptible of the two. Impact ice on the air intake can still affect either system.

    Reference: PHAK FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapter 7 · ACS PA.IX.C.K1

17. What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?

    A. Maneuvering speed. B. Turbulent or rough-air speed. C. Never-exceed speed.
    Show answer

    Answer: C. The red line on the airspeed indicator marks VNE, the never-exceed speed. Operating above it is prohibited because it may result in damage or structural failure.

    Reference: PHAK FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapter 8 · ACS PA.I.F.R2

18. Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?

    A. Pilot in command. B. Air Traffic Controller. C. Second in command.
    Show answer

    Answer: A. The AIM states that the pilot in command has the final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short clearance, and pilots are expected to decline one if it would compromise safety.

    Reference: AIM 4-3-11 · ACS PA.IV.B.R3b

19. The term 'angle of attack' is defined as the angle between the

    A. chord line of the wing and the relative wind. B. airplane's longitudinal axis and that of the air striking the airfoil. C. airplane's center line and the relative wind.
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Angle of attack is the acute angle between the chord line of the airfoil and the direction of the relative wind. It is not measured from the longitudinal axis or the airplane's center line.

    Reference: PHAK FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapter 5 · ACS PA.I.F.K3

20. When the course deviation indicator (CDI) needle is centered using a VOR test signal (VOT), the omnibearing selector (OBS) and the TO/FROM indicator should read

    A. 180° FROM, only if the pilot is due north of the VOT. B. 0° TO or 180° FROM, regardless of the pilot's position from the VOT. C. 0° FROM or 180° TO, regardless of the pilot's position from the VOT.
    Show answer

    Answer: C. With the CDI centered on a VOT test signal, the OBS should read 0 degrees with a FROM indication or 180 degrees with a TO indication, regardless of your position relative to the VOT.

    Reference: AIM 1-1-4 · ACS PA.VI.B.K1

21. A pilot and two passengers landed on a 2,100 foot east-west gravel strip with an elevation of 1,800 feet. The temperature is warmer than expected and after computing the density altitude it is determined the takeoff distance over a 50 foot obstacle is 1,980 feet. The airplane is 75 pounds under gross weight. What would be the best choice?

    A. Taking off into the headwind will give the extra climb-out time needed. B. Try a takeoff without the passengers to make sure the climb is adequate. C. Wait until the temperature decreases, and recalculate the takeoff performance.
    Show answer

    Answer: C. You need 1,980 feet to clear a 50-foot obstacle and have only 2,100 feet of runway, which leaves almost no margin. High density altitude reduces engine power, propeller thrust and lift, and cooler air lowers density altitude, so the sound choice is to wait and recompute takeoff performance.

    Reference: PHAK FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapters 2 and 11 · ACS PA.I.H.K4

22. If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be

    A. a drop in oil temperature and cylinder head temperature. B. engine roughness. C. loss of RPM.
    Show answer

    Answer: C. In an airplane with a fixed-pitch propeller, the first indication of carburetor ice is a decrease in engine RPM, which may be followed by engine roughness. With a constant-speed propeller it shows up as a drop in manifold pressure instead.

    Reference: PHAK FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapter 7 · ACS PA.IX.C.K1

23. While on a VFR cross country and not in contact with ATC, what frequency would you use in the event of an emergency?

    A. 121.5 MHz. B. 122.5 MHz. C. 128.725 MHz.
    Show answer

    Answer: A. 121.5 MHz is the VHF emergency frequency. It is guarded by direction finding stations, most civil towers, radar facilities and some aircraft, so use it when you are not already in contact with ATC.

    Reference: AIM 6-3-1 · ACS PA.III.A.K1

24. ATC advises, "traffic 12 o'clock." This advisory is relative to your

    A. true course. B. ground track. C. magnetic heading.
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Controllers see only your track over the ground on radar, so traffic calls use the clock based on your ground track. If you are crabbing into a crosswind, the traffic will appear offset from the clock position given.

    Reference: AIM 4-1-15 · ACS PA.VI.B.K3

25. Which statement relates to Bernoulli's principle?

    A. For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. B. An additional upward force is generated as the lower surface of the airfoil deflects air downward. C. Air traveling faster over the curved upper surface of an airfoil causes lower pressure on the top surface.
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Bernoulli's principle states that as the velocity of a moving fluid increases, its pressure decreases. Faster air over the curved upper surface lowers the pressure above the wing. Choices A and B describe Newton's laws instead.

    Reference: PHAK FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapter 4 · ACS PA.I.F.K3

26. Deviation error of the magnetic compass is caused by

    A. a northerly turning error. B. certain metals and electrical systems within the aircraft. C. the difference in location of true north and magnetic north.
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Deviation is compass error caused by magnetic fields inside the airplane, such as electrical circuits, radios, lights, the engine and magnetized metal parts. The difference between true and magnetic north is variation.

    Reference: PHAK FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapters 8 and 16 · ACS PA.VI.A.K2

27. When executing an emergency approach to land in a single-engine airplane, it is important to maintain a constant glide speed because variations in glide speed will

    A. increase the chances of shock cooling the engine. B. assure the proper descent angle is maintained until entering the flare. C. nullify all attempts at accuracy in judgment of gliding distance and landing spot.
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Any change from the best glide speed changes how far the airplane glides, so a wandering airspeed makes it impossible to judge gliding distance and the landing spot accurately.

    Reference: Airplane Flying Handbook FAA-H-8083-3C, Chapter 3 · ACS PA.IX.B.K4

28. How far will an aircraft travel in 7.5 minutes with a ground speed of 114 knots?

    A. 14.25 NM. B. 15.00 NM. C. 14.50 NM.
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Distance equals groundspeed times time. 7.5 minutes is 0.125 hour, and 114 knots times 0.125 hour equals 14.25 nautical miles.

    Reference: PHAK FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapter 16 · ACS PA.I.D.K3a

29. The radius of the procedural outer area of Class C airspace is normally

    A. 10 NM. B. 20 NM. C. 30 NM.
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Class C airspace has a procedural outer area that normally extends 20 NM from the primary airport. It is not charted, and participation in the radar services offered there is voluntary.

    Reference: AIM 3-2-4 · ACS PA.I.E.K1

30. The Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) specifically encourages pilots to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and especially when operating

    A. in Class B airspace. B. in conditions of reduced visibility. C. within 15 miles of a towered airport.
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Under the FAA's Operation Lights On program, pilots are encouraged to turn on landing lights below 10,000 feet, day or night, especially within 10 miles of any airport, in conditions of reduced visibility, and where flocks of birds may be expected.

    Reference: AIM 4-3-24 · ACS PA.III.B.R1

31. When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which code?

    A. 7200 B. 7000 C. 7500
    Show answer

    Answer: C. When changing codes, avoid passing through 7500, 7600 or 7700, which cause momentary false alarms at automated ATC facilities. For example, to go from 2700 to 7200, switch to 2200 first, not 7700.

    Reference: AIM 4-1-20 · ACS PA.VI.B.K4

32. A pilot experiencing the effects of hyperventilation should be able to restore the proper carbon dioxide level in the body by

    A. slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a paper bag, or talking aloud. B. breathing spontaneously and deeply or gaining mental control of the situation. C. increasing the breathing rate in order to increase lung ventilation.
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Hyperventilation blows off too much carbon dioxide. Slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a paper bag, or talking aloud helps restore the normal carbon dioxide level, and recovery is usually rapid.

    Reference: PHAK FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapter 17; AIM 8-1-3 · ACS PA.I.H.K1b

33. If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability is lost in-flight,

    A. the pilot may still rely on GPS derived altitude for vertical information. B. the pilot has no assurance of the accuracy of the GPS position. C. GPS position is reliable provided at least 3 GPS satellites are available.
    Show answer

    Answer: B. RAIM is the receiver checking the integrity of its own position solution. The AIM states that without RAIM capability, the pilot has no assurance of the accuracy of the GPS position.

    Reference: AIM 1-1-17 · ACS PA.VI.B.K2

34. You plan to phone a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information. You should

    A. provide the number of occupants on board. B. identify yourself as a pilot. C. begin with your route of flight.
    Show answer

    Answer: B. The AIM says to identify yourself as a pilot when you request a preflight briefing, then give the type of flight (VFR or IFR), aircraft number or pilot's name, aircraft type, departure airport, route, destination, altitudes, and estimated time of departure and time en route.

    Reference: AIM 5-1-1 · ACS PA.I.C.K1

35. Your cousin wants you to take him flying. You must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in your aircraft within the preceding

    A. 90 days. B. 60 days. C. 30 days.
    Show answer

    Answer: A. To carry passengers you must have made three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days as sole manipulator of the controls, in an aircraft of the same category, class and type (if a type rating is required). Tailwheel currency requires full-stop landings, and night currency has its own full-stop requirement.

    Reference: 14 CFR 61.57(a) and (b) · ACS PA.I.A.K1

36. In what flight condition are torque effects more pronounced in a single-engine airplane?

    A. Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack. B. Low airspeed, low power, low angle of attack. C. High airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.
    Show answer

    Answer: A. The left-turning tendencies (torque reaction, spiraling slipstream, gyroscopic action and P-factor) are strongest at high power and high angle of attack with low forward speed, such as on takeoff and in power-on stalls.

    Reference: PHAK FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapter 5 · ACS PA.I.F.K3

37. The wind at 5,000 feet AGL is southwesterly while the surface wind is southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to

    A. stronger pressure gradient at higher altitudes. B. friction between the wind and the surface. C. stronger Coriolis force at the surface.
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Friction with the surface slows the wind near the ground, which weakens the Coriolis force there. The pressure gradient force then turns the surface wind across the isobars toward lower pressure, so the surface wind direction differs from the wind aloft.

    Reference: Aviation Weather Handbook FAA-H-8083-28B, Chapter 10 · ACS PA.I.C.K3b

38. Eye movements during daytime collision avoidance scanning should

    A. not exceed 10 degrees and view each sector at least 1 second. B. be 30 degrees and view each sector at least 3 seconds. C. use peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-center viewing.
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Effective scanning uses a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive areas of the sky into central vision. Each movement should not exceed 10 degrees, and each area should be observed for at least 1 second.

    Reference: AIM 8-1-6 · ACS PA.I.H.K1k

39. When there is a temperature inversion, you would expect to experience

    A. clouds with extensive vertical development above an inversion aloft. B. good visibility in the lower levels of the atmosphere and poor visibility above an inversion aloft. C. an increase in temperature as altitude increases.
    Show answer

    Answer: C. A temperature inversion is a layer in which temperature increases with altitude instead of decreasing. Inversion layers are commonly shallow layers of smooth, stable air that trap weather and pollutants beneath them.

    Reference: PHAK FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapter 12 · ACS PA.I.C.K3c

40. When warm, moist, stable air flows upslope, it

    A. produces stratus type clouds. B. causes showers and thunderstorms. C. develops convective turbulence.
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Stable air resists vertical motion, so moist, stable air forced up sloping terrain cools to its dewpoint and forms upslope fog or low stratus clouds. Showers, thunderstorms and convective turbulence come from unstable air.

    Reference: Aviation Weather Handbook FAA-H-8083-28B, Chapter 18; PHAK Chapter 12 · ACS PA.I.C.K3f

41. Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of any

    A. authorized representative of the Department of Transportation. B. person in a position of authority. C. local law enforcement officer.
    Show answer

    Answer: C. You must present your pilot or medical certificate, with photo identification, on request from the FAA Administrator, an authorized NTSB representative, any federal, state or local law enforcement officer, or an authorized TSA representative.

    Reference: 14 CFR 61.3(l) · ACS PA.I.A.K4

42. The correct method of stating 5,500 feet MSL to ATC is

    A. FIVE POINT FIVE. B. FIFTY-FIVE HUNDRED FEET MSL. C. FIVE THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED.
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Below 18,000 feet MSL, state the separate digits of the thousands plus the hundreds, so 5,500 feet is FIVE THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED. The words flight level are used only at and above 18,000 feet MSL.

    Reference: AIM 4-2-9 · ACS PA.III.A.K2

43. Unless otherwise authorized, which situation requires Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B)?

    A. Landing at an airport with an operating control tower. B. Overflying Class C airspace below 10,000 feet MSL. C. Flying under the shelf of Class C airspace.
    Show answer

    Answer: B. ADS-B Out is required in Class B and C airspace and above the ceiling and within the lateral boundaries of Class B or C airspace up to 10,000 feet MSL. It is not required beneath a Class C shelf (unless you are within 30 NM of a Class B primary airport listed in Appendix D) or to land at a towered Class D airport.

    Reference: 14 CFR 91.225(d) · ACS PA.I.E.K1

FAA sample questions for the Private Pilot Airplane knowledge test, answers and explanations by StudentPilot.com