StudentPilot.com is a PilotMall.com publicationShop pilot supplies ›

Private Pilot Oral Exam Questions (Mock Oral by ACS Area)

The private pilot oral exam is the ground portion of your checkride: a scenario-based discussion with an examiner, built on the FAA’s Private Pilot ACS (FAA-S-ACS-6C), that you must pass before you fly. Below are 102 practice questions with short answers checked against current FAA regulations and handbooks, grouped by ACS area and task.

This is part of our Private Pilot ACS guide. The oral leads straight into the flight portion; see the full checkride walkthrough.

How the oral exam works

The practical test has a ground portion and a flight portion. The ground portion, usually called the oral, comes first, and the ACS requires you to pass it before the flight begins; questioning continues in the airplane. Failing any task fails the test.

What the examiner is really assessing

In every applicable ACS task the examiner must test at least one knowledge and one risk management element, plus anything you missed on the knowledge test. Expect scenarios built around a cross-country plan you prepare; the ACS favors applying knowledge over rote recall.

The mock oral tool below picks a random question from this bank so you can answer out loud before checking the answer.

Answer it out loud as if the examiner asked, then open it to check yourself.

Answers assume a typical single-engine trainer; your POH governs where it differs.

Area I: Preflight Preparation

Task A. Pilot Qualifications (PA.I.A)

What must you carry to act as pilot in command?

Your pilot certificate, a photo ID such as a driver’s license or passport, and a current medical certificate, on your person or readily accessible in the aircraft. Under BasicMed, a U.S. driver’s license replaces the medical, with the course certificate and exam checklist in your logbook.

Reference: 14 CFR 61.3(a), (c); 61.113(i)

What is a flight review, and when is it due?

At least 1 hour of ground and 1 hour of flight training with an authorized instructor, covering Part 91 rules and chosen maneuvers, plus an endorsement. It’s good through the 24th calendar month after the month completed; a passed practical test also counts.

Reference: 14 CFR 61.56(a), (c), (d)

You last landed 95 days ago. Can you take a friend flying today?

Not yet. Carrying persons requires three takeoffs and three landings in the preceding 90 days as sole manipulator, in the same category and class (and type, if required). Fly them alone in day VFR, or with an instructor, first.

Reference: 14 CFR 61.57(a), (e)(5)

How long is a third-class medical valid for private privileges?

If you were under 40 at the exam, through the end of the 60th month after the exam month; if 40 or older, the 24th month. First- and second-class medicals cover private privileges for the same periods.

Reference: 14 CFR 61.23(d)

What are the BasicMed requirements and limits?

BasicMed requires a U.S. driver’s license, a medical held after July 14, 2006 (the latest not suspended or revoked), a physician’s exam within 48 calendar months, and the medical education course within 24. Limits: aircraft for up to 7 occupants and 12,500 pounds, 6 passengers, 18,000 feet MSL, and 250 knots, in the U.S. unless another country authorizes it.

Reference: 14 CFR 61.23(c)(3); 61.113(i); Part 68

Can a private pilot be paid to fly, or share costs?

Not for compensation or hire, except narrow cases: flights merely incidental to your business (carrying no passengers or property for hire), paying at least your pro rata share of fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees, qualifying charity flights, reimbursed search and location flights, and sales demonstrations with 200 hours.

Reference: 14 CFR 61.113(a) through (h)

You moved two months ago and never told the FAA. Can you fly?

No. Privileges lapse 30 days after a change of permanent mailing address until you notify the FAA Airman Certification Branch in writing.

Reference: 14 CFR 61.60

After your checkride, can you rent a 230-horsepower airplane?

Only after training and a one-time high-performance endorsement (more than 200 horsepower). Complex and tailwheel airplanes each need their own one-time endorsement too.

Reference: 14 CFR 61.31(e), (f), (i)

What is the difference between currency and proficiency?

Currency is the legal minimum, such as three landings in 90 days; proficiency is the skill to fly safely today. The PHAK calls it legal versus smart: set personal minimums and fly with an instructor when rusty.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapter 2

Task B. Airworthiness Requirements (PA.I.B)

Which documents must be in the airplane?

Use ARROW: Airworthiness certificate (displayed for passengers or crew to read), Registration, Radio station license (international flights only), Operating limitations (flight manual or POH, markings, placards), and Weight and balance data.

Reference: 14 CFR 91.203(a), (b); 91.9; FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapter 9

How long are the registration and airworthiness certificates valid?

Registration expires seven years after the last day of the month issued. A standard airworthiness certificate doesn’t expire while maintenance follows Parts 43 and 91 and the airplane stays U.S.-registered.

Reference: 14 CFR 47.40(a); 21.181(a)

Which inspections must be current for your checkride airplane?

Annual within 12 calendar months; 100-hour if it carries anyone for hire or the instructor provides it for instruction for hire; transponder within 24 calendar months; ELT within 12; and applicable ADs. VOR and altimeter-static checks are IFR items (AV1ATES).

Reference: 14 CFR 91.409; 91.413; 91.207(d); 91.171; 91.411; Part 39

The annual expired yesterday. Can you ferry the airplane to a shop?

Only with a special flight permit from the FAA. The 10-hour allowance applies only to the 100-hour inspection, while en route to where it will be done.

Reference: 14 CFR 91.409(a), (b); 21.197(a)(1)

What is an AD, and how do you confirm compliance?

An Airworthiness Directive is a legally enforceable rule correcting an unsafe condition likely to exist in other products of the same design. The maintenance records must show each AD’s status, method of compliance, and next due time for recurring ADs.

Reference: 14 CFR 39.3, 39.5, 39.7; 91.417(a)(2)(v)

Who is responsible for airworthiness?

The owner or operator must maintain the airplane, including AD compliance. The PIC determines whether it is in condition for safe flight and must discontinue the flight if unairworthy conditions occur.

Reference: 14 CFR 91.403(a); 91.7

Your landing light is inoperative. Can you fly in daylight?

Without an MEL, use 91.213(d): it can’t be required by VFR-day type certification, the equipment list or KOEL, 91.205 or another rule, or an AD. If not, have it removed or deactivated (deactivation is maintenance, so a mechanic does it and records it), placard it ‘Inoperative,’ and confirm it’s no hazard. 91.205 requires a landing light only at night for hire.

Reference: 14 CFR 91.213(d); 91.205(c)(4)

What preventive maintenance may you perform?

Part 43 Appendix A items, such as tire repair, bulb replacement, and spark plug or battery service, on an aircraft you own or operate (not under Part 121, 129, or 135). You approve it for return to service and log a description, the date, your signature, and certificate number.

Reference: 14 CFR 43.3(g); 43.7(f); 43.9(a); Part 43 Appendix A

What separates standard and special airworthiness certificates?

Standard certificates cover normal, utility, acrobatic, commuter, and transport category aircraft, manned free balloons, and special classes. Special certificates cover primary, restricted, limited, provisional, light-sport, and experimental aircraft, and special flight permits.

Reference: 14 CFR 21.175

Task C. Weather Information (PA.I.C)

Where do you get a briefing, and must you call Flight Service?

Flight Service, the Aviation Weather Center, or online and EFB sources; per the AIM, you can get a regulatory-compliant briefing without calling Flight Service. A standard briefing covers adverse conditions, synopsis, current conditions, forecasts, winds aloft, NOTAMs, and ATC delays.

Reference: AIM 7-1-5; AC 91-92; 14 CFR 91.103

How do a METAR, a SPECI, and a TAF differ?

A METAR is the routine hourly observation; a SPECI is an unscheduled one when conditions change significantly. A TAF forecasts conditions within 5 statute miles of the center of the runway complex for 24 or 30 hours, four times daily.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-28B, Sections 24.4 and 27.4

What do AIRMETs cover?

Hazards below SIGMET intensity, aimed especially at VFR pilots: Sierra (IFR conditions, mountain obscuration), Tango (moderate turbulence, strong surface winds, low-level wind shear), and Zulu (moderate icing, freezing levels).

Reference: AIM 7-1-6; FAA-H-8083-28B, Chapter 26

How do a SIGMET and a Convective SIGMET differ?

SIGMETs cover severe icing or severe or extreme turbulence not caused by thunderstorms, dust or sandstorms below 3 miles, and volcanic ash. Convective SIGMETs cover severe thunderstorms (50-knot winds, 3/4-inch hail, tornadoes), embedded storms, lines of storms, and large heavy-rain areas, implying severe turbulence, icing, and wind shear.

Reference: AIM 7-1-6

What does a thunderstorm need, and what are its stages?

Water vapor, an unstable lapse rate, and a lifting action. It builds in the cumulus stage (updrafts), is most violent in the mature stage as precipitation falls, and weakens in the dissipating stage as downdrafts take over.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapter 12

How far from severe storms should you stay, and can ADS-B weather get you through a line?

At least 20 miles from any storm identified as severe or with an intense radar echo. Data-linked NEXRAD may be 15 to 20 minutes older than displayed, so use it to avoid storms entirely, never to pick a path through them.

Reference: AIM 7-1-27; AIM 7-1-9

Describe a microburst.

A downdraft usually under 1 mile across, up to 6,000 feet per minute, with outflow up to 45 knots and a possible 90-knot shear: first a headwind gain, then a downdraft and tailwind. Most last 15 minutes or less.

Reference: AIM 7-1-24

Your destination forecast is 3 miles and a 2,500-foot ceiling under an AIRMET Sierra. Your minimums are 5 miles and 3,000 feet. Do you go?

No, not as planned: the forecast is below your personal minimums and IFR conditions are expected en route. Delay, reroute, or cancel. Examiners want to hear risk weighed against personal minimums, not just legality.

Reference: ACS PA.I.C.R1; AIM 7-1-6

Task D. Cross-Country Flight Planning (PA.I.D)

What fuel reserve does a VFR flight require?

Enough to reach the first intended landing point and then fly at normal cruise for 30 minutes by day or 45 at night, considering wind and forecast weather. That’s the legal minimum; carry more.

Reference: 14 CFR 91.151(a)

Which VFR cruising altitudes fit magnetic courses of 135 and 270 degrees?

Above 3,000 feet AGL and below 18,000 MSL, 0 to 179 degrees uses odd thousands plus 500 (such as 5,500), and 180 to 359 uses even thousands plus 500 (such as 6,500). It’s magnetic course, not heading.

Reference: 14 CFR 91.159

What does 91.103 require before a cross-country?

Becoming familiar with all available information, including weather, fuel requirements, alternatives, known ATC delays, runway lengths, and takeoff and landing distances. NWKRAFT adds NOTAMs.

Reference: 14 CFR 91.103; AIM 5-1-3

How do you file, activate, and close a VFR flight plan?

File in the FAA Form 7233-4 format with Flight Service or another service. Activate it yourself by radio, electronically, or with an assumed departure time; towers won’t. Close it with Flight Service or via ATC, or search and rescue begins 30 minutes after your ETA.

Reference: AIM 5-1-5, 5-1-14; 14 CFR 91.153

Halfway there, your groundspeed is 20 knots below plan. What do you do?

Compare checkpoint times and fuel burn with the plan, recompute fuel to destination plus reserve, and divert early to a fuel stop if the margin is gone.

Reference: ACS PA.I.D.S4, PA.VI.A.K7

What do you do if a military aircraft intercepts you?

Follow the interceptor’s instructions without delay, try to contact it or ATC on 121.5 MHz, and squawk 7700 unless ATC instructs otherwise.

Reference: AIM 5-6-13

Task E. National Airspace System (PA.I.E)

What are the VFR weather minimums in Class B, C, D, and E airspace?

Class B: 3 statute miles, clear of clouds. Class C, D, and E below 10,000 MSL: 3 miles; 500 below, 1,000 above, 2,000 horizontal. Class E at or above 10,000 MSL: 5 miles; 1,000 below, 1,000 above, 1 mile horizontal. See VFR weather minimums.

Reference: 14 CFR 91.155(a)

What are the Class G minimums?

At or below 1,200 AGL: day 1 mile, clear of clouds; night 3 miles and 500/1,000/2,000 (1 mile and clear of clouds in a pattern within 1/2 mile of the runway). Above 1,200 AGL below 10,000 MSL: day 1 mile, night 3, both 500/1,000/2,000. Above 1,200 AGL at or above 10,000 MSL: 5 miles, 1,000/1,000/1 mile.

Reference: 14 CFR 91.155(a), (b)

A Class D airport reports 900 overcast and 2 miles. Can you depart VFR?

Not under basic VFR: surface areas require 3 miles ground visibility and no flight beneath a ceiling below 1,000 feet. Request special VFR: clear of clouds with 1 mile visibility. At night, special VFR needs an instrument rating and an IFR-equipped airplane.

Reference: 14 CFR 91.155(c), (d); 91.157

What do you need to enter Class B, C, and D airspace?

Class B: an ATC clearance, two-way radio, Mode C transponder, ADS-B Out, and at least a private certificate (or student endorsements). Class C: two-way communication before entry, Mode C, and ADS-B Out. Class D: two-way communication before entry.

Reference: 14 CFR 91.129, 91.130, 91.131, 91.215, 91.225

Class C approach answers ‘Aircraft calling, standby.’ Can you enter?

No. Communication is established only when the controller uses your call sign. Without it, or if told to remain outside, stay out.

Reference: AIM 3-2-4

Where are a Mode C transponder and ADS-B Out required?

Class A, B, and C; within 30 NM of the Part 91 Appendix D airports (the Mode C veil) up to 10,000 MSL; above Class B or C up to 10,000 MSL; and at and above 10,000 MSL over the 48 states, except at or below 2,500 AGL.

Reference: 14 CFR 91.215(b); 91.225

What are the minimum safe altitudes?

Anywhere, high enough for an emergency landing without undue hazard. Congested areas: 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 2,000 feet. Elsewhere: 500 feet AGL; over open water or sparse areas, 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

Reference: 14 CFR 91.119

Name the types of special use airspace.

Prohibited (no flight), restricted (no entry when active without permission), MOAs (VFR allowed; use caution and call the controlling agency), warning areas offshore, alert areas (heavy training), controlled firing areas (activity stops for aircraft), and National Security Areas (avoid voluntarily).

Reference: AIM 3-4-1 through 3-4-8

How do you find TFRs, and can you trust the one on your tablet?

TFRs are issued by NOTAM, so check them in every briefing. Cockpit TFR depictions are advisory only; stay clear of them and confirm with Flight Service or ATC.

Reference: 14 CFR 91.137, 91.141; AIM 3-5-3, 7-1-9

Task F. Performance and Limitations (PA.I.F)

What is density altitude, and what does a hot, humid day at a high airport do?

Density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature. Heat, humidity, elevation, and low pressure raise it, cutting engine power, propeller thrust, and lift: longer takeoff rolls and weaker climbs.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapter 4

How do weight and CG location affect the airplane?

Extra weight raises takeoff and stall speeds, lengthens takeoff and landing rolls, and cuts climb. A forward CG raises stall speed and control forces; an aft CG reduces stability and, beyond limits, may make the airplane uncontrollable.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapters 5 and 10

You’re beyond the aft CG limit. How do you fix it?

Move weight forward or remove it from the rear, then recompute the weight and balance: the new CG is total moment divided by total weight. Check takeoff and landing CG, since fuel burn shifts it.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapter 10; ACS PA.I.F.S1

Why might your takeoff roll be longer than the POH says?

POH numbers come from a new airplane flown by a test pilot on a paved, level, dry runway. Grass or contaminated surfaces, tailwinds, extra weight, high density altitude, and poor technique all add distance.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapters 2 and 11

What is maneuvering speed, and why does it vary with weight?

VA is the speed below which one full deflection of a single control, in one axis, in smooth air, won’t cause structural damage. It decreases as weight decreases, and it doesn’t protect against combined or repeated full inputs.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapters 5 and 8

What happens to load factor and stall speed in a level 60-degree bank?

Load factor is 2 G. Stall speed rises with the square root of load factor, about 41 percent, so a 50-knot stall becomes about 71 knots.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapter 5

What are the left-turning tendencies?

Torque reaction, the corkscrewing slipstream hitting the vertical tail, gyroscopic precession, and P-factor (the descending blade’s bigger bite at high angle of attack). They peak at high power and low airspeed; counter with right rudder.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapter 5

What is ground effect, and how can it catch you?

Near the surface, weaker wingtip vortices cut induced drag. You can lift off below the recommended speed, especially heavy or at high density altitude, and then fail to climb out of ground effect. On landing, excess speed causes floating.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapter 5

Task G. Operation of Systems (PA.I.G)

Why does the engine run with the master off, and is no RPM drop on a magneto check OK?

Two engine-driven magnetos make their own current, independent of the electrical system. No drop isn’t normal: the magneto may not be grounding, so the engine could start if the propeller moves. Don’t fly it.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapter 7

The alternator fails in flight. What do you do?

The battery carries the load for a limited time while the magnetos keep the engine running. Follow the checklist, shed nonessential loads, tell ATC, land at the nearest suitable airport, and expect a no-flap landing if flaps are electric.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapter 7; FAA-H-8083-3C, Chapter 18

How do you recognize and treat carburetor ice?

With a fixed-pitch propeller, RPM drops, possibly followed by roughness. Apply full carburetor heat and leave it on through the rough running as ice melts. It’s most likely below 70 degrees F and above 80 percent humidity, but possible up to 100 degrees F.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapter 7

How do you verify the fuel?

Check the POH grade and color (100LL is blue, 100 green, 80 red, Jet A clear or straw). Drain the sumps and strainer before each flight for water and contamination, and check quantity visually, since gauges need be accurate only at empty.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapter 7

What are detonation and preignition?

Detonation is explosive, uncontrolled combustion that overheats cylinders and can damage the engine; causes include low-grade fuel, overly lean mixtures at high power, and poor cooling. Preignition is early ignition from a hot spot. Use the right fuel, lean properly, and keep the engine cool.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapter 7

Which instruments use pitot and static pressure, and what if the pitot tube ices over?

In the pitot-static system, airspeed uses both; the altimeter and VSI use static only. With the pitot opening and drain both blocked, airspeed acts like an altimeter, rising in a climb; with only the opening blocked, it drops toward zero.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapter 8

The static port is blocked. What do the instruments show?

The altimeter freezes, the VSI reads zero, and airspeed reads low above the blockage altitude and high below it. Alternate static (cabin air) makes the altimeter and airspeed read slightly high, with a momentary VSI climb.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapter 8

Task H. Human Factors (PA.I.H)

What are the four types of hypoxia?

Hypoxic (too little oxygen, as at altitude), hypemic (blood can’t carry it, often from carbon monoxide), stagnant (poor circulation, as from G-forces or cold), and histotoxic (cells can’t use it, from alcohol or drugs).

Reference: FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapter 17

When must you use supplemental oxygen?

Required crew: beyond 30 minutes at cabin altitudes above 12,500 up to 14,000 feet MSL, and continuously above 14,000; above 15,000, every occupant must be provided oxygen. The AIM recommends it above 10,000 by day and 5,000 at night.

Reference: 14 CFR 91.211(a); AIM 8-1-2

What are the symptoms of hyperventilation, and the fix?

Overbreathing blows off carbon dioxide, causing lightheadedness, tingling, coolness, and drowsiness. Slow your breathing or breathe into a bag. It mimics hypoxia, so if you’re on oxygen, select 100 percent and check the system first.

Reference: AIM 8-1-3

With the cabin heat on, you smell exhaust and get a headache. What do you do?

Suspect carbon monoxide. Turn off the heater, open the fresh air vents and windows, and use oxygen if available; get medical care if symptoms continue after landing.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapter 17; AIM 8-1-4

What are the alcohol rules?

No crew duty within 8 hours of drinking, under the influence, at 0.04 alcohol concentration or more, or on a drug that impairs your faculties, and no intoxicated passengers except in an emergency. The AIM suggests 12 to 24 hours.

Reference: 14 CFR 91.17(a), (b); AIM 8-1-1

You took an antihistamine last night for a cold. Can you fly?

Not if it impairs you; the FAA’s safest rule is no flying on medication unless the FAA approves it. The PHAK suggests waiting five maximum dosing intervals after a sedating drug, and a cold invites ear blocks. Ask an AME.

Reference: 14 CFR 91.17(a)(3); AIM 8-1-1; FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapter 17

What is the graveyard spiral?

A form of spatial disorientation: after a prolonged turn the inner ear senses wings level, so the pilot notices altitude loss, pulls back, and tightens the descending spiral. Prevent it by keeping a visual horizon or trusting the instruments.

Reference: AIM 8-1-5

Name the five hazardous attitudes and their antidotes.

Anti-authority (‘Don’t tell me’): Follow the rules; they are usually right. Impulsivity (‘Do it quickly’): Not so fast; think first. Invulnerability (‘It won’t happen to me’): It could happen to me. Macho (‘I can do it’): Taking chances is foolish. Resignation (‘What’s the use?’): I’m not helpless; I can make a difference.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapter 2

How do you assess yourself and the flight before you go?

IMSAFE for you (Illness, Medication, Stress, Alcohol, Fatigue, Emotion) and PAVE for the flight (Pilot, Aircraft, enVironment, External pressures), measured against written personal minimums. If the risk can’t be managed, cancel.

Reference: AIM 8-1-1; FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapter 2

Passengers are waiting and the weather is worsening. How do you handle it?

Name it: the PHAK calls external pressure the key risk to manage because it can override all others. Plan releases ahead: time for an extra stop, a backup way to get there, and telling people you may be late.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapter 2

How long should you wait to fly after scuba diving?

Up to 8,000 feet MSL: 12 hours after a dive without a controlled ascent, 24 hours after one with. Above 8,000 feet: 24 hours after any dive.

Reference: AIM 8-1-2

Area III: Airport and Seaplane Base Operations

Task A. Communications, Light Signals, and Runway Lighting (PA.III.A)

What do the ATC light gun signals mean?

Steady green: cleared for takeoff or to land. Flashing green: cleared to taxi, or return for landing. Steady red: stop, or give way and keep circling. Flashing red: taxi clear of the runway, or airport unsafe, do not land. Flashing white: return to starting point (ground). Alternating red and green: extreme caution. See light gun signals.

Reference: 14 CFR 91.125; AIM 4-3-13

Your radio fails approaching a towered airport. What do you do?

Squawk 7600, stay outside or above the Class D area until you see the traffic flow, join the pattern, and watch for light signals; acknowledge by rocking wings by day or flashing lights at night. Land on a steady green.

Reference: AIM 4-2-13, 6-4-2; 14 CFR 91.129(d)

Which transponder codes should you know?

1200 VFR, 7500 hijacking, 7600 lost communications, 7700 emergency. If you’re already working ATC in an emergency, keep your assigned code unless told otherwise.

Reference: AIM 4-1-20, 6-3-2, 6-3-4, 6-4-2

‘Taxi to Runway 27 via Alpha,’ and Alpha crosses Runway 18. May you cross?

No. Every runway crossing needs an explicit clearance, and a taxi instruction to your runway doesn’t clear you onto it. Read back runway assignments, crossings, and hold short instructions, and beware expecting your usual route.

Reference: AIM 4-3-18; FAA-H-8083-3C, Chapter 2

When should you declare an emergency?

Early: the AIM says you’re in at least an urgency condition once you’re doubtful about position, fuel, weather, or anything affecting safety. You may deviate from Part 91 as needed and owe a written report only if the FAA asks.

Reference: AIM 6-1-2; 14 CFR 91.3(b), (c)

When must you notify the NTSB?

Immediately after an accident (death, serious injury, or substantial damage), serious incidents such as a flight control failure, crew incapacitation, in-flight fire, or in-flight collision, or an overdue aircraft believed down. A written report follows within 10 days of an accident.

Reference: 49 CFR 830.2, 830.5, 830.15

What do runway status lights mean?

Red Runway Entrance Lights: unsafe to enter or cross. Red Takeoff Hold Lights: unsafe to take off. If lit, stop and contact ATC even if cleared; the lights never grant a clearance.

Reference: AIM 2-1-6

Task B. Traffic Patterns (PA.III.B)

How do you enter the pattern at a non-towered airport?

Determine the runway in use, descend to pattern altitude (1,000 AGL for propeller airplanes unless published) clear of the pattern, and enter at 45 degrees to midfield downwind. Turn left unless right traffic is indicated, and announce on the CTAF 10 miles out, downwind, base, final, and clear.

Reference: AC 90-66C; AIM 4-3-3, 4-1-9; 14 CFR 91.126(b)

What do runway holding position markings look like?

Four yellow hold lines, two solid and two dashed; hold on the solid side. After landing you’re not clear of the runway until the whole airplane crosses them. The matching sign is white on red.

Reference: AIM 2-3-5, 2-3-8

Who has the right-of-way?

Distress first. Converging, same category: the aircraft on the right. Categories: balloon, glider, towing or refueling aircraft, airship, other powered aircraft. Head-on: both turn right. Overtaking: pass on the right. Landing aircraft have priority, the lower one first, but no cutting in on final.

Reference: 14 CFR 91.113

How do you avoid wake turbulence behind a large airplane?

Vortices are strongest behind heavy, clean, slow aircraft and sink. Landing, stay at or above its path and land beyond its touchdown point; departing, rotate before its rotation point and climb above its path. Light quartering tailwinds need maximum caution.

Reference: AIM 7-4-3, 7-4-4, 7-4-6

Area VI: Navigation

Tasks A to D. Navigation, Diversion, and Lost Procedures (PA.VI)

How do pilotage and dead reckoning differ?

Pilotage is navigating by landmarks. Dead reckoning is computing heading and groundspeed from airspeed, wind, distance, and time. VFR cross-countries use both, comparing actual and planned checkpoint times.

Reference: 14 CFR 1.1; FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapter 16

What errors affect the magnetic compass?

Variation, deviation (see the correction card), and dip errors. On east or west headings, accelerating shows a turn north, decelerating south (ANDS). Turning north, roll out before the heading; turning south, after it, by about 15 degrees plus half your latitude.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapter 8

Can you navigate VFR with a handheld GPS or tablet?

Yes, but VFR and handheld units lack RAIM alerting, so position errors can go unannounced, and antennas can lose signal. Current databases aren’t required for VFR but are recommended. Cross-check with pilotage and dead reckoning.

Reference: AIM 1-1-17

Weather ahead is deteriorating. How do you divert?

Pick a suitable airport and turn toward it promptly, then refine the course with a plotter or VOR compass rose, note the time, and work out groundspeed, ETA, and fuel.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapter 16

You’re lost. What do you do?

Climb if able for visibility and radio and radar coverage, communicate (ATC can give vectors; use 121.5 MHz and 7700 if it gets threatening), and fix your position with landmarks, VOR bearings, or GPS.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapter 16; AIM 6-1-2

Area VII: Slow Flight and Stalls

Tasks A to D. Slow Flight, Stalls, and Spins (PA.VII)

What causes a stall? Can you stall at any airspeed?

Exceeding the critical angle of attack, which can happen at any airspeed, attitude, or power setting.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-3C, Chapter 5

Walk me through a stall recovery.

Reduce angle of attack first until the stall warning stops, then roll wings level, add power as needed, and return to the desired flightpath without a secondary stall. Follow the POH where it differs.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-3C, Chapter 5

What raises or lowers stall speed?

Higher weight, higher load factor (steep turns, abrupt pull-ups), and a forward CG raise it; flaps lower it. Frost spoils lift, so remove it before flight.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapters 5, 10, and 12; FAA-H-8083-3C, Chapter 18

What is a spin, and how do you recover?

An aggravated stall with yaw that produces autorotation. Absent POH guidance: power idle, ailerons neutral, full opposite rudder, brisk forward elevator, neutralize rudder when rotation stops, then ease back to level flight.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-3C, Chapter 5

Where does a cross-control stall happen?

Usually a skidding base-to-final turn: overshooting final, the pilot adds inside rudder and back pressure while holding opposite aileron. It can roll sharply, with little warning, into a spin. Keep turns coordinated.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-3C, Chapter 5

Area IX: Emergency Operations

Tasks A to D. Emergencies and Survival Gear (PA.IX)

Your engine quits at 3,000 feet AGL. What do you do?

Pitch for best glide and pick a landing area within range, planning for wind, field size, and obstacles. Run the POH restart checklist. If it fails, declare an emergency, brief passengers, and secure the airplane.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-3C, Chapters 3 and 18; AIM 6-3-2

How do best glide and minimum sink speed differ?

Best glide (a key V-speed) gives the most distance per altitude lost; minimum sink, a few knots slower, keeps you up longest. Never stretch a glide below best glide. Headwinds shorten the glide; tailwinds extend it.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-3C, Chapter 3

How do you handle an engine fire in flight?

Follow the POH. The AFH’s general procedure: mixture idle cutoff, fuel selector off, ignition left on to burn off fuel, no restart, then an emergency descent and forced landing.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-3C, Chapter 18

A door pops open after liftoff. What do you do?

Fly the airplane; open doors seldom affect control. Don’t rush or unbuckle to reach it. Fly a normal pattern and landing, then close it on the ground.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-3C, Chapter 18

How do you perform an emergency descent?

Per the POH, typically idle power and the recommended configuration, banking 30 to 45 degrees to keep positive G and clear below, within VNE, VFE, and VLE. The ACS tolerance is +0/-10 knots.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-3C, Chapter 18; ACS PA.IX.A.S4, S5

What are the ELT testing and battery rules?

Satellites detect only 406 MHz ELTs. Test analog units only in the first 5 minutes after the hour, three sweeps maximum. Replace batteries after 1 cumulative hour of use or half their useful life; inspect every 12 calendar months.

Reference: AIM 6-2-4; 14 CFR 91.207(c), (d)

What survival gear do you carry over remote terrain?

Enough for 48 to 72 hours: water, clothing, and shelter for the climate, plus a signaling device such as a 406 MHz personal locator beacon, and brief passengers on it.

Reference: ACS PA.IX.D.R1, S2; AIM 6-2-4

You inadvertently fly into a cloud. What do you do?

Treat it as an emergency: trust the attitude indicator, keep wings level, bank no more than about 10 degrees, avoid combined maneuvers, and ask ATC for help. Untrained pilots lose control in about 10 minutes.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-3C, Chapter 18

Area XI: Night Operations

Task A. Night Operations (PA.XI.A)

What are the three definitions of night, and what is night passenger currency?

Logging: end of evening to beginning of morning civil twilight. Position lights: sunset to sunrise. Passengers: three takeoffs and three full-stop landings in the preceding 90 days, in the same category and class, between 1 hour after sunset and 1 hour before sunrise.

Reference: 14 CFR 1.1; 91.209(a); 61.57(b)

What extra equipment does night VFR require?

Day VFR equipment plus position lights, an anticollision light system, adequate electrical power, spare fuses accessible in flight, and a landing light if for hire. ATOMATOFLAMES and FLAPS cover it.

Reference: 14 CFR 91.205(b), (c)

How do you protect your night vision?

Look 5 to 10 degrees off center, since rods are sparse at the eye’s center. Allow about 30 minutes to dark-adapt, avoid bright light, and carry a flashlight with red light. Night vision degrades above 5,000 feet cabin altitude and with carbon monoxide.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapter 17; FAA-H-8083-3C, Chapter 11; AIM 8-1-2, 8-1-6

Which visual illusions are common at night?

Autokinesis (a stationary light appears to move), false horizons, and the black-hole approach over dark terrain or water, which leads to a low approach. Use instruments and a VASI or PAPI.

Reference: AIM 8-1-5; FAA-H-8083-25C, Chapter 17

You see an airplane’s red light on your right and green on your left. What does it mean?

It’s heading toward you, a possible collision course. Red on your left and green on your right means it’s going your way.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-3C, Chapter 11

How do you turn on pilot-controlled lighting?

Key the mike 7 times within 5 seconds for highest intensity, 5 for medium or lower, 3 for lowest; start with 7. The lights stay on 15 minutes from the last activation.

Reference: AIM 2-1-8

How to prepare for the oral

  • Read the ACS itself. The Private Pilot ACS lists every element the examiner can test.
  • Work your knowledge test report. The examiner must revisit the ACS codes you missed on the written exam; a practice test shows weak areas early.
  • Know your airplane: systems, limitations, performance, and weight and balance.
  • Practice scenarios out loud: what could go wrong in each task, and how would you manage it? Then do a mock oral with your instructor.

If you are unsure, say so and show where you would find the answer in the FAR/AIM, POH, or Chart Supplement. Using resources is part of single-pilot resource management, which examiners evaluate. A confident wrong answer is worse.

Oral exam study guides

What you'll need

The guides and references students use to prepare for the oral, all from PilotMall.com.

ASA Private Pilot Oral Exam Guide
ASA Private Pilot Oral Exam Guide
Gleim Private Pilot Oral Exam Guide and ACS
Gleim Private Pilot Oral Exam Guide and ACS
FAA-S-ACS-6C Private Pilot Airplane ACS
FAA-S-ACS-6C Private Pilot Airplane ACS

Frequently asked questions

How long is the oral exam?

The FAA does not set a length. The examiner must cover knowledge and risk management in every applicable ACS task plus anything you missed on the written, so plan for a long session and ask your examiner what to expect.

What topics come up most?

Expect the Preflight Preparation tasks: pilot qualifications, airworthiness, weather, your cross-country plan, airspace, performance, systems, and human factors, often tied together in a scenario. Any required ACS task is fair game.

Can you fail the oral?

Yes. You must pass the ground portion before you fly, and failing any task fails the test. You get a Notice of Disapproval, need more training and an instructor endorsement to retest, and keep credit for areas passed if you finish within 60 days.

What is the best oral exam guide?

The ASA and Gleim private pilot oral exam guides both organize likely questions and answers by ACS topic. Use either alongside the ACS itself, the FAR/AIM, and your airplane’s POH.

What should I bring to the checkride?

The FAA’s applicant checklist in FAA-G-ACS-2 lists aircraft documents, maintenance records, and the POH; a view-limiting device, current charts, a plotter and flight computer, and the AIM; and your photo ID, pilot and medical certificates (or BasicMed), IACRA application, knowledge test report, and endorsed logbook.

Back to the Private Pilot ACS guide